I have received a question about the sale of a property by a 50 % owner.
Is it possible for a 50% share owner of a property to order the sale of the entire property without the consent of the remaining partners?
As my answer may be hard to find among the old posts on Purchases of real estate in Sweden I publish it here.
Yes and no. I am a lawyer you know ;)
The rules of the Swedish Act on Co-Ownership (Lag (1904:48 s.1) om samäganderätt) apply.
According to this act, if a house or other real property is owned by more than one person, each co-owner, irrespective of the share he owns, has the right to go to court and ask the court to appoint a custodian, who will then arrange for the sale of the property through a public sale.